I'm curious about the wording "effects are truly null". I was always under the impression that you can never really "accept the null", but rather "fail to reject the alternative".
In your standard NHST test, sure. But you can do different models. If I'm reading OP right, what they do is a mixture model, in which effects are assumed to come either from a zero-mean distribution or a positive-mean distribution with unknown probability _P_/1-_P_ and then you fit the collection of >2k effect sizes to find out what value of _P_ best fits the dataset as a whole. Apparently the best fit assumes that ~70% of effects are actually ~0.
This can also be done nicely with a Bayesian mixture model or a spike-and-slab multilevel model, and that is what is done in "What works in e-commerce - a meta-analysis of 6700 online experiments", Brown & Jones 2017 http://www.qubit.com/sites/default/files/pdf/qubit_meta_anal... (although they don't formulate it in terms of a sharp null but ask the more relevant 'probability of a >0 beneficial effect', which for some kinds of A/B test has a very low prior - like only 15% for 'back to top' A/B tests).
The "null" hypothesis would typically be that "there is no effect".
All that you can really do is prove it wrong, by measuring an effect when there "should", by the hypothesis, be none.
Due to what is known as the "problem of induction", it's not sufficient to accept a hypothesis because you appeared to not measure an effect in the past, as that says nothing about whether an effect will occur the next time a measurement is made.
p-value is the "chance" of measuring an effect, given that no effect actually occurred.
